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The fastest growing technologies in our culture today, data communications and networking presents a unique challenge for instructors and students.
A network administrator of Stark Industries has examined the routing table of a router and noted that the entry for the destination network 172.16.4.0/24 begins with the letter D. What does this letter signify?
To troubleshoot issues when a trunk is not forming or when VLAN leaking is occurring, what command to be used to check whether the local and peer native VLANs match?
What are two functions of dynamic routing protocols? 1. to maintain routing tables 2. to assure low router overhead 3. to avoid exposing network information 4. to discover the network 5. to choose the path that is specified by the administrator
Telnet protocol by default uses Port ______.
Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take through internet works?
A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four vlans in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
Which command is used to configure an IPv6 address on a router interface so that the router will combine a manually specified network prefix with an automatically generated interface identifier?
The ip helper-address command does what?
This layer provide fault isolation and high-speed backbone connectivity.
This is the practice of inserting a VLAN ID into a packet header in order to identify which VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) the packet belongs to.
Which version of NAT allows many hosts inside a private network to simultaneously use a single inside global address for connecting to the Internet?
Configurations are stored within a VLAN database file, called
What are the two main types of access control lists (ACLs)?
Which command will show you all the translations active on your router?
Which two parameters are used by EIGRP as metrics to select the best path to reach a network? hop count bandwidth jitter resiliency delay confidentiality
This attack tries to crack a password on another device. The first phase of this attack starts with the attacker using a list of common passwords and a program designed to try to establish a Telnet session using each word on the dictionary list.
Which of the following is NOT an element of converged network?
What is the default number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing of a Cisco OSPF router?
Which action is performed by a client when establishing communication with a server via the use of UDP at the transport layer?
Which statement describes a difference between the operation of inbound and outbound ACLs?
Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is highier than the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router?
Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? 1. VTP 2. 802.1q 3. IGP 4. ISL 5. 802.3u
Which task does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform?
The following access list below was applied outbound on the E0 interface connected to the 220.127.116.11/29 LAN: access-list 135 deny tcp 18.104.22.168 0.0.0.7 eq 20 any access-list 135 deny tcp 22.214.171.124 0.0.0.7 eq 21 any How will the above access lists affect traffic?
This type of attack takes advantage of the way that hardware on most switches operates. Most switches perform only one level of 802.1Q de- encapsulation, which allows an attacker to embed a hidden 802.1Q tag inside the frame.
What is the minimum and maximum Ethernet frame size as defined by IEEE 802.3?
If the port is assigned to the wrong VLAN, what command to be command to change the VLAN membership on a particular port?
Which of the following would be a good starting point for troubleshooting if your router is not translating?
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? 1. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB. 2. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB. 3. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1. 4. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB. 5. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Which command would you place on interface on a private network?
A company is contemplating whether to use a client/server or a peer-to-peer network. What are three characteristics of a peer-to-peer network? (Choose three.)
Which three features are of OSPF routing protocol? Converge quickly OSPF is a classful routing protocol Identify the best route by use of cost Before exchanging routing information, OSPF routers find out neighbors OSPF is a classless routing protocol
Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?
Which factor directly affects the time to convergence?
What is an advantage of OSPF compared to RIP?
Which command is used to determine if an IP access list is enabled on a particular interface?
Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?
Refer to the exhibit. A router-on-a-stick configuration was implemented for VLANs 15, 30, and 45, according to the show running-config command output. PCs on VLAN 45 that are using the 172.16.45.0 /24 network are having trouble connecting to PCs on VLAN 30 in the 172.16.30.0 /24 network. Which error is most likely causing this problem?
What is the command to create a VLAN with a valid VLAN ID number 30?
Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is highierthan the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router?
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPV6 address to a router interface?
What happens when a data collision occurs on an Ethernet bus?
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator that has the IP address of 10.0.70.23/25 needs to have access to the corporate FTP server (10.0.54.5/28). The FTP server is also a web server that is accessible to all internal employees on networks within the 10.x.x.x address. No other traffic should be allowed to this server. Which extended ACL would be used to filter this traffic, and how would this ACL be applied? access-list 105 permit ip host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq www access-list 105 permit ip any any access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.54.5 any eq www access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 20 access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 21 access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 20 access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 21 access-list 105 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 10.0.54.5 eq www access-list 105 deny ip any host 10.0.54.5 access-list 105 permit ip any any R2(config)# interface gi0/0 R2(config-if)# ip access-group 105 in R1(config)# interface gi0/0 R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out R1(config)# interface s0/0/0 R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out
What is the OSPF default frequency, in seconds, at which a Cisco router sends hello packets on a multiaccess network?
Which are the 2 trunking protocols?
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit?
There are two advantages of static routing over dynamic routing among these choices. What are these? 1. Static routing is more secure because it does not advertise over the network. 2. Static routing scales well with expanding networks. 3. Static routing requires very little knowledge of the network for correct implementation. 4. Static routing uses fewer router resources than dynamic routing 5. Static routing is relatively easy to configure for large networks.
R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF. From the following list of IP addresses configured on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID?
In fiber optic meda, the signals are represented as patterns of _____
If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic, how many ACLs could be created and applied to it?
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration of the switch interface are correct? SwitchA(config)#interface fa0/0 SwitchA(config-if)#switchport access vlan 2 The switchport belongs only to VLAN 2. By default, all switch ports are members of VLAN 1005. Interface fa0/0 will be in both VLAN 1 (by default) and VLAN 2. The exhibit shows interface fa0/0 to be dynamically mapped to VLAN 2. A network host can be connected to this interface.
Which parameter can be tuned to affect the selection of a static route as a backup when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A protocol that provides an encrypted connection to a remote device.
What type of DHCP attack where in an attacker floods the DHCP server with DHCP requests to use all the available IP addresses that the DHCP server can issue. After these IP addresses are issued, the server cannot issue any more addresses, and this situation produces a denial-of-service (DoS) attackas new clients cannot obtain network access.
Which 3 statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? It supports VLSM. It is used to route between autonomous systems. It confines network instability to one area of the network. It increases routing overhead on the network. It allows extensive control of routing updates It is simpler to configure than RIPv2.
Which three statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? It supports VLSM. It is used to route between autonomous systems. It confines network instability to one area of the network. It increases routing overhead on the network. It allows extensive control of routing updates It is simpler to configure than RIPv2.
A network administrator needs to configure a standard ACL so that only the workstation of the administrator with the IP address 192.168.15.23 can access the virtual terminal of the main router. Which two configuration commands can achieve the task? 1. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB. 2. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB. 3. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1. 4. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB. 5. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
RouterA#debugip rip RIP protocol debugging is on00:34:32: RIP: sending v2 flash update to 126.96.36.199 via FastEthernet8/0 (172.16.1.1) 00:34:32: RIP: build flash update entries 00:34:32: 10.10.1.0/24 via 0.0.0.6, metric 1, tag 0 00:34:32: RIP: sending v2 flash update to 188.8.131.52 via Loopback (10.10.1.1) 00:34:32: RIP: build flash update entries 00:34:32: 10.0.0.0/8 via 0.6.0.0, metric 2, tag 0 00:34:32: 172.16.1.0/24 via 0.0.0.0, metric 1, tag 0 00:34:32: RIP: ignored v2 packet from 184.108.40.206 (sourced from one of our addresses) 06:34:33: RIP: received v2 update from 172.16.1.2 on FastEthernet0/6 66:34:33: 220.127.116.11/8 via 18.104.22.168 in 1 hops 66:34:44: RIP: sending v2 update to 22.214.171.124 via FastEthernet0/0 (172.16.1.1) 66:34:44: RIP: build update entries 66:34:44: 10.10.1.0/24 via 0.0.0.0, metric 1, tag 0 Refer to the exhibit. What information can be gathered from the output?
What are two functions that are provided by the network layer? (Choose two.)
When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never be assignable to hosts? IP address used by the interfaces Manually assigned address to the clients Designated IP address to the DHCP server Broadcast address on the network IP address leased to the LAN Network or subnetwork IP address (Missed)
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to HTTP traffic coming from the Internet that is destined for 126.96.36.199 if the traffic is processed by this ACL? router#show access-lists Extended IP access list 110 10 deny tcp 172.16.12.0 0.0.255.255 any eq telnet 20 deny tcp 172.16.12.0 0.0.255.255 any eq smtp 30 deny tcp 172.16.12.0 0.0.255.255 any eq http 40 permit tcp 172.16.12.0 0.0.255.255 any
If your routing table has a static, a RIP, and an IGRP route to the same network, which route will be used to route packets by default?
The AJ company has a small network. The network consists of one switch and one router. The switch has been configured with two VLANs. The router has been configured as a router-on- a-stick to allow inter-VLAN routing. A trunk is configured to connect the switch to the router. Whatis the minimum number of router subinterfaces that are required for all the VLANs to communicate?
Refer to the given network diagram. Which command would be used on router A to configure a static route to direct traffic from LAN A that is destined for LAN C?
Which statement are generally considered to be best practices in the placement of ACLs? (Choose three.)
A switch forwarding method that begins the forwarding process after the destination MAC address of an incoming frame and the egress port has been determined.
Which protocolis used to configure trunking on a switch?
This is a proprietary protocol that all Cisco devices can be configured to use. This checks other Cisco devices that are directly connected, which allows the devices to auto-configure their connection.
The primary function of this layer is to provide network access to the user.
Refer to the exhibit below. What routing solution will allow both PC A and PC B to access the Internet with the minimum amount of router CPU and network bandwidth utilization?
If an error occurs while loading the operating system because of missing or damaged system files, the load loader can be access through a console connection. What button in the switch you need to press while reconnecting the power cord?
What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface associated with that route goes into a down state?
What is the name given to a one-to-many message delivery option?
If all OSPF routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?
This is a conduit for multiple VLANs between switches and routers.
Which of the following are 3 disadvantages of using NAT? 1. Translation introduces switching path delays. 2. NAT conserves legally registered addresses. 3. NAT causes loss of end-to-end IP traceability. 4. NAT increases flexibility when connecting to the Internet. 5. Certain applications will not function with NAT enabled. 6. NAT reduces address overlap occurrence.
What happens if part of an FTP message is not delivered to the destination?
Which item represents the standard IP ACL?
In the Switch port LED status, if the LED is blinking green what is the status of switch?
"Router On Stick" is a method used for communicating inter-vlan using a router.
The following configuration line was added to router R1
TRUE or FALSE. Store-and-forward switching has two primary characteristics that distinguish it from cut-through: error checking and automatic buffering.
Which TCP header field specifies the number of bytes that can be accepted before an acknowledgement is required?
Which two features are characteristics of flash memory? 1. Flash receives a copy of the IOS from RAM when a device is powered on. 2. Flash provides nonvolatile storage. 3. The contents of flash may be overwritten. 4. Flash is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers. 5. The contents of flash may be lost during a power cycle.
Refering to the network diagram above of RMS University. All hosts and router interfaces are configured correctly. Pings to the server from both H1 and H2 and pings between H1 and H2 are not successful. What is causing this problem?
Refer to the exhibit below. The network engineer for the company that is shown wants to use the primary ISP connection for all external connectivity. The backup ISP connection is used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish this goal?
Which command will show you the summary of the NAT configuration?
A network administrator configures the interface fa0/0 on the router R1 with the command ip address 172.16.1.254 255.255.255.0. However, when the administrator issues the command show ip route, the routing table does not show the directly connected network. What is the possible cause of the problem?
Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking? 1. one physical interface for each subinterface 2. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface 3. a management domain for each subinterface 4. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags 5. one subinterface per VLAN 6. subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags
SSH protocol by default uses Port ______.
To enable network access to a remote destination, what three pieces of information must be configured on a host? 1. default gateway 2. hostname 3. DNS server address 4. DHCP server address 5. IP address 6. subnet mask
Refer to the exhibit. If the router Cisco returns the given output and has not had its router ID set manually, what value will OSPF use as its router ID? Designated IP address to the DHCP server IP address leased to the LAN Network or subnetwork IP address Manually assigned address to the clients IP address used by the interfaces Broadcast address on the network
If your routing table has a static, a RIP, and an OSPF route to the same network, which route will be used to route packets by default?
Which of the following describes a VLAN?
Sometimes switch ports must manually have their duplex mode manually configured. This duplex mode increases effective bandwidth by allowing both ends of a connection to transmit and receive data simultaneously.
What is the status of the Port speed LED if the LED light is blinking green?
Which IPv4 address range covers all IP addresses that match the ACL filter specified by 172.16.2.0 with wildcard mask 0.0.1.255?
Refer to the exhibit below. Which two statements about the configuration of the switch interface are correct? SwitchA(config)#interface fa0/0 SwitchA(config-if)#switchport access vlan 2 The switchport belongs only to VLAN 2. By default, all switch ports are members of VLAN 1005. Interface fa0/0 will be in both VLAN 1 (by default) and VLAN 2. The exhibit shows interface fa0/0 to be dynamically mapped to VLAN 2. A network host can be connected to this interface.
Which protocols are used to configure trunking on a switch?
Which devices would be considered end devices on a network? (Choose four.)
Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer in RMSIndustries that is shown wants to use the primary ISP connection for all external connectivity. The backup ISP connection is used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish this goal.
A collection of interconnected switches forms a _______________________.
The network segments that share the same bandwidth between devices.
What are the parts of an IPv4 address? (Choose two.)
A switch forwarding method that makes a forwarding decision on a frame after it has received the entire frame and then checked the frame for errors.
A network associate in Genesis Aerospace Industries has configured OSPF with the command: City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF.Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? 1. FastEthernet0/0 2. FastEthernet0/1 3. Serial0/0 4. Serial0/1.104 5. Serial0/1.103 6. Serial0/1.102
A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem?
Refer to the graphic. It has been decided that PC1 should be denied access to Server. Which 2 of the following commands are required to prevent only PC1 from accessing Server1 while allowing all other traffic to flow normally? 1 – Router(config)# interface fa0/0 Router(config-if)# ip access-group 101 out 2 – Router(config)# interface fa0/0 Router(config-if)# ip access-group 101 in 3 – Router(config)# access-list 101 deny ip host 172.16.161.150 host 172.16.162.163 Router(config)# access-list 101 permit ip any any 4 – Router(config)# access-list 101 deny ip 172.16.161.150 0.0.0.255 172.16.162.163 0.0.0.0 5 – Router(config)# access-list 101 permit ip any any
Which statement describe a characteristicof load balancing?
This is a point-to-point link between two network devices that carries more than one VLAN.
Which of the following are disadvantages of peer-to-peer networking? (Choose two.)
In this attack, the attacker exploits a flaw in the Telnet server software running on the switch that renders the Telnet service unavailable. This sort of attack prevents an administrator from remotely accessing switch management functions. This can be combined with other direct attacks on the network as part of a coordinated attempt to prevent the network administrator from accessing core devices during the breach.
The _____ switches typically come with different sized chassis that allow for the installation of different numbers of line card.
What two functions describe uses of an access control list?
What is one feature that distinguishes routers from Layer 2 switches?
This is a security technology that determines which devices attached to switch ports can respond to DHCP requests. This can be used to prevent unauthorized DHCP messages that contain information such as IP address related data being provided to legitimate network devices.
What are two benefits of using NAT? 1. NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised. 2. NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets. 3. Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network. 4. NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enable. 5. NAT eliminates the need to re-address all host that require external access. 6. NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing.
VLAN is a switching technology that reduces the size of a broadcast domain.
Refer to the exhibit. R1 receives a packet destined for the IP address 192.168.2.10. Out which interface will R1 forward the packet?
Routers support three packet-forwarding mechanisms. These are
Refer to the sample configuration below. Which (config-router) command will allow the network represented on the interface to be advertised by RIP? router rip version 2 no auto summary ! interface ethernet0 ip address 10.12.6.1 255.255.0.0
The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following tasks? It provides dynamic neighbor discovery. It detects unreachable neighbors in 90 second intervals. It maintains neighbor relationships. It negotiates correctness parameters between neighboring interfaces. It uses timers to elect the router with the fastest links as the designated router. It broadcasts hello packets throughout the internetwork to discover all routers that are running OSPF 1. It provides dynamic neighbor discovery. 2. It detects unreachable neighbors in 90 second intervals. 3. It maintains neighbor relationships. 4. It negotiates correctness parameters between neighboring interfaces. 5. It uses timers to elect the router with the fastest links as the designated router. It broadcasts hello packets throughout the internetwork to discover all routers that are running OSPF.
A network administrator in XYZ Telecom is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?
What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add network 10.1.1.0 /24 to area 0?
What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol?
TRUE or FALSE. Cut-through switching has two primary characteristics: rapid frame forwarding and invalid frame processing.
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
What is an advantage that UDP has over TCP?
Which two statements describe a routed switch port on a multilayer switch? 1. Layer 2 switching and Layer 3 routing are mutually supported. 2. The port is not associated with any VLAN. 3. The routed switch port supports VLAN subinterfaces. 4. The routed switch port is used when a switch has only one port per VLAN or subnet. 5. The routed switch port ensures that STP remains in the forwarding state.
A network administrator has examined the routing table of a router and noted that the entry for the destination network 172.16.4.0/24 begins with the letter D. What does this letter signify?
Stackable that are arranged one on top of the other with cables linking the switches in a _____________ connection.
In troubleshooting VLANs, what command should be used to check whether the port belongs to the expected VLAN?
Which value, that is contained in an IPv4 header field, is decremented by each router that receives a packet?
What happens to frames that are too long or too short for the channel used?
Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is higher than the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router?
What two criteria are used to help select a network medium from various network media? (Choose two.)
Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?
What is the command used to determine the status of both physical and virtual interfaces including IP address?
PAT Address Translation is also termed what?
What type of information would be found on a logical topology diagram?
This is a protocol that is used to synchronize the clocks of computer systems over packet-switched, variable-latency data networks.
What is the command to set the IP address (192.168.10.2) and subnet mask (255.255.0.0) for specific Fast Ethernet interface?
Which two statements about static NAT translations are true? 1. They are always present in the NAT table. 2. They allow connection to be initiated from the outside. 3. They can be configured with access lists, to allow two or more connections to be initiated from the outside. 4. They require no inside or outside interface markings because addresses are statically defined.
Which of the following 3 methods/types of NAT? 1. Static 2. IP NAT pool 3. Dynamic 4. NAT double-translation 5. Overload
All hosts in the networks have been operational for several hours when the DHCP server goes down. What happens to the hosts that have obtained service from the DHCP server?
A type of VLAN that is configured to carry user-generated traffic.
Which command will allow you to see real-time translations on your router?
Refer to the exhibit. All hosts and router interfaces are configured correctly. Pings to the server from both H1 and H2 and pings between H1 and H2 are not successful. What is causing this problem?
Which three statements are generally considered to be best practices in the placement of ACLs? Place standard ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic. Place extended ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic. Filter unwanted traffic before it travels onto a low-bandwidth link. Place extended ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic. Place standard ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic. For every inbound ACL placed on an interface, there should be a matching outbound ACL.
Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict? Router# show ip dhcp conflict IP address Detection method Detection time 172.16.1.32 Ping Feb 16 1998 12:28 PM 172.16.1.64 Gratuitous ARP Feb 23 1998 08:12 AM
VLANis a switching technology that reduces the size of a broadcast domain.
What is the command to configure the interface to automatically negotiate speed with the connected device?
What is the purpose of protocols in data communications?
True or False. If two devices in the same VLAN have different subnet addresses, they cannot communicate.
OSPF routing uses the concept of areas. What are the three characteristics of OSPF areas? 1. Each OSPF area requires a loopback interface to be configured 2. Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535 3. Area 0 is called the backbone area 4. Hierarchical OSPF networks do not require multiple areas 5. Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0 6. Single area OSPF networks must be configured in area 1
What is the status of the Port speed LED if the LED light is green?
This layer provides intelligent switching, routing, and network access policy functions to access the rest of the network.
A type of VLAN that is defined in the IEEE 802.1Q specification to maintain backward compatibility with untagged traffic common to legacy LAN scenarios.
Which of the following is the command to configure the switch default gateway with IP address of 188.8.131.52?
What are two functions of end devices on a network? (Choose two.)
This is used between a network device and server or other device that is equipped with an appropriate 802.1Q-capable NIC.
Which of the following are 2 primary functions of a router? 1. Packet switching 2. Microsegmentation 3. Domain name resolution 4. Path selection 5. Flow control
Which message timing factor impacts how much information can be sent and the speed at which it can be delivered?
What is the best practice relative to switch port modes?
Which two characteristics are shared by both standard and extended ACLs? Both kinds of ACLs can filter based on protocol type. Both can permit or deny specific services by port number. Both include an implicit deny as a final ACE. Both filter packets for a specific destination host IP address. Both can be created by using either a descriptive name or number.
What type of route allows a router to forward packets even though its routing table contains no specific route to the destination network?
In reference with the network diagram of RMS Defence Industries. What routing solution will allow both PC A and PC B to access the Internet with the minimum amount of router CPU and network bandwidth utilization?
Which command would you place on interface connected to the Internet?
Refer to the exhibit. A junior network engineer in one of the biggest telecom company in the Philippines has prepared the exhibited configuration file. What two statements are true of the planned configuration for interface fa0/1? 1. The two FastEthernet interfaces will require NAT configured on two outside serial interfaces. 2. Address translation on fa0/1 is not required for DMZ Devices to access the Internet. 3. The fa0/1 IP address overlaps with the space used by s0/0. 4. The fa0/1 IP address is invalid for the IP subnet on which it resides. 5. Internet hosts may not initiate connections to DMZ Devices through the configuration that is shown.
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? 1. Router(config)#router ospf 1 2. Router(config)#router ospf 0 3. Router(config)#router ospf area 0 4. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 5. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0 6. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
What is the correct syntax of a floating static route?
What type of DHCP attack where in an attacker configures a fake DHCP server on the network to issue DHCP addresses to clients. The normal reason for this attack is to force the clients to use false Domain Name System (DNS) or Windows Internet Naming Service (WINS) servers and to make the clients use the attacker, or a machine under the control of the attacker, as their default gateway.
What name is given to a group of interrelated protocols necessary to perform a communication function?
A network administrator in Stark Industries is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem?
OSPF routing uses the concept of areas. What are the characteristics of OSPF areas? 1. Each OSPF area requires a loopback interface to be configured. 2. Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535. 3. Area 0 is called the backbone area. 4. Hierarchical OSPF networks do not require multiple areas. 5. Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0. 6. Single area OSPF networks must be configured in area 1.
Refer to the exhibit. According to the routing table, where will the router send a packet destined for 10.1.5.65? Network Interface Next-hop 10.1.1.0/24 e0 directly connected 10.1.2.0/24 e1 directly connected 10.1.3.0/25 s0 directly connected 10.1.4.0/24 s1 directly connected 10.1.5.0/24 e0 10.1.1.2 10.1.5.64/28 e1 10.1.2.2 10.1.5.64/29 s0 10.1.3.3 10.1.5.64/27 s1 10.1.4.4
What is a characteristic of UDP?
This layer is considered as the network backbone.
Which two statements describe intermediary devices? (Choose two.)
Which field in an Ethernet frame is used for error detection?
The default VLAN for Cisco switches is ____________________.
Which is the VLAN not tagged by 802.1q?
Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists?
What type of delivery uses data link layer addresses?
What is the purpose of the DHCP server?
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP address to host?
Which command will create a dynamic pool named Todd that will provide you with 30 global addresses?
Network infrastructure devices require IP addresses to enable remote management. Using the device IP address, the network administrator can remotely connect to the device using any of the following EXCEPT
What is the command to assign the port to a particular VLAN when the interface is in access mode?
What is true about the Ethernet MAC address? (Choose three.)
Global configuration mode is used to configure system globally, or to enter specific configuration modes to configure specific elements such as protocols. What is the command to enter global configuration mode?
What is the command netstat –r used for?
What are the 3 layers of the distribution access?
Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer for the company that is shown wants to use the primary ISP connection for all external connectivity. The backup ISP connection is used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish this goal.
Which of the following elements do both human and computer communication systems have in common? (Choose three.)
What is a group of web pages that groups of individuals can edit and view together called?
Which is a function of the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer?
Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? 1. The metric varies depending which Layer 3 protocol is being routed, such as IP. 2. A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances. 3. The value of the administrative distance can not be altered by the network administrator. 4. Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path. 5. Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route. 6. The metric is always determined based on hop count.
The ________________ switches do not support features or options beyond those that originally came with the switch.
A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?
A client is downloading a large file from a server using FTP. Many of the segments are lost during transit. What will most likely happen?
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following 2 tasks? It provides dynamic neighbor discovery. It detects unreachable neighbors in 90 second intervals. It maintains neighbor relationships. It negotiates correctness parameters between neighboring interfaces. It uses timers to elect the router with the fastest links as the designated router. It broadcasts hello packets throughout the internetwork to discover all routers that are running OSPF.
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports. B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables. C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port. D. Ensure the switch has power. E. Reboot all of the devices. F. Reseat all cables.
Which of the following would be good reasons to run NAT? You need to connect to the Internet and your hosts don't have globally unique IP addresses. You change to a new ISP that requires you to renumber your network. You don't want any hosts connecting to the Internet. You require two intranets with duplicate addresses to merge.
The network administrator of ABC Supermarket configures the router with the "ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2" command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
Which three statements about routed ports on a multilayer switch are true? 1. A routed port can support VLAN subinterfaces. 2. A routed port takes an IP address assignment. 3. A routed port can be configured with routing protocols. 4. A routed port is a virtual interface on the multilayer switch. 5. A routed port is associated only with one VLAN. 6. A routed port is a physical interface on the multilayer switch.
What range of ports can either be used by TCP or UDP to identify the requested service on the destination device or as a client source port?
What is a network infrastructure that provides access to other networks over a wide geographic area?
The following are VLAN best practices EXCEPT?
VLAN IDs 1002 through 1005 are reserved for
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?
What are the primary functions associated with data encapsulation at the Ethernet MAC sublayer? (Choose three.)
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